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Joined: 10/01/2009
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view question and its corresponding solution related to this thread.
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f(2) = 1/(1+1) = 1/2

f(3) = (1/2)/ (1+1/2)= 1/3

& so on..

so f(n) = 1/n

easy oneSmile

Joined: 08/27/2009
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User offline. Last seen 14 weeks 4 days ago.
Re: Question of the day - 15.11.09

P(1) = 1

P(2) = 1/(1+1) = 1/2

P(3) = (1/2)/(1 + 1/2) = 1/3

P(4) = (1/3)/(1 + 1/3) = 1/4

...

In this way, we observe that P(n) = 1/n

Joined: 10/22/2009
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User offline. Last seen 12 weeks 3 hours ago.
Re: Question of the day - 15.11.09

ya friends...its 1/n....

Joined: 09/22/2009
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User offline. Last seen 13 weeks 1 day ago.
Re: Question of the day - 15.11.09

yeah ...its 1/n

Joined: 11/24/2009
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User offline. Last seen 1 week 3 days ago.
Re: Question of the day - 15.11.09

Its simple yaar..

P(1) = 1

P(2) = 1/(1+1) = 1/2

P(3) = (1/2)/(1 + 1/2) = 1/3

P(4) = (1/3)/(1 + 1/3) = 1/4

......

In this way, we observe that P(n) = 1/n